a. effectiveness.
b. predictability.
c. safety.
d. selectivity.
2. Use of drugs to diagnose, prevent, or treat disease or to prevent pregnancy is known as:
a. clinical pharmacology.
b. pharmacology.
c. pharmacotherapeutics.
d. experimental pharmacology.
3. Goals of the preadministration assessment of the patient include:
a. determining the action of the drug.
b. managing toxicity from the drug.
c. identifying patients at risk for adverse effects from the drug.
d. evaluating the expected outcome of the drug.
4. Which of the following patients would be identified as most predisposed to adverse reactions:
a. a 30-year-old man with a fracture.
b. A 75-year-old woman with liver disease.
c. A 50-year-old man with a upper respiratory tract infection.
d. A 7-year-old with an ear infection.
5. Which of the following is a PRN medication order?
a. a hypnotic if the patient cannot sleep
b. an antacid after each meal
c. a glucocorticoid taper
d. any drug not requiring a prescription
6. The first legislation to regulate drug safety was the:
a. Federal Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906.
b. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
c. Kefauver-Harris Amendment.
d. Controlled Substances Act.
7. After which phase of a clincial trial may a manufacturer apply for FDA approval?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
8. Which of the following is the most common method by which drugs can cross the cell membrane to exert an effect?
a. Passage through channels or pores
b. Passage with the aid of a transport system
c. Direct penetration of the membrane
d. Transmission along a sodium channel
9. Which of the following is a true statement in regards to pH dependent ionization?
a. An acid is a proton donor while a base is a proton acceptor.
b. Acids will ionize best in an acidic media.
c. For bases to ionize, the media must be alkaline.
d. When acids give up positively charged ions, the acid will become more basic.
10. A patient is in severe pain. Which of the following routes of administration would be the most expeditious?
a. Oral
b. Intramuscular
c. Intravenous
d. Transdermal
11. A drug that produces its effects by preventing the activation of a receptor would be classified as:
a. an agonist.
b. an antagonist.
c. a partial agonist.
d. intrinsic.
12. The ED50 indicates the dose required to produce a:
a. minimal response in half of the population.
b. toxic response in half of the population.
c. therapeutic response in half of the population.
d. sustained response in half of the patients.
13. If drugs A and B are taken together and drug B augments the effects of drug A, the interaction would be classified as:
a. inhibitory.
b. beneficial.
c. antagonistic.
d. potentiative.
14. A patient who has taking an antidepressant develops signs of Parkinson’s disease. This syndrome would be classified as
a(an):
a. allergic reaction.
b. idiosyncratic effect.
c. iatrogenic disease.
d. teratogenic effect.
15. When discussing the concept of pharmacodynamic tolerance, the nurse should include the fact that:
a. the phenomenon only occurs with opioids.
b. this means that the patient will require more drug to achieve the same effect.
c. the patient requires a stable dose of medication until the drug is discontinued.
d. addiction is likely to develop if the drug is not tapered.
16. The nurse of an elderly patient would monitor renal excretion
of drugs by assessing:
a. creatinine clearance.
b. serum creatinine levels.
c. white blood counts.
d. blood urea nitrogen.
17. At what age does the hepatic metabolizing ability the child become similar to that of the adult?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. One year
d. Three years
18.The period during which thee is the highest risk of teratogeninduced gross malformations is:
a. immediately pre-conception.
b. 2-3 weeks after conception.
c. 3-8 weeks after conception.
d. 20-24 weeks after conception.
19. Match:
1. Levodopa
2. Tacrine (Cognex)
3. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
4. Baclofen (Lioresal)
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Perkinson’s disease
C. Muscle Spesticity
D. Epilepsy
20. Match:
1. Atropine
2. Bethanacol
3. Neostigmine
4. Tubocurarine
A. Neuromuscular blocking agent
B. Muscarinic Antagonist
C. Muscarinic agonist
D. Cholinestarase inhibitor
True/False:
21. Dopaminergic agents promote activation of dopamine receptors
Multiple Choice:
26. When caring for patients receiving dantrolene, the nurse should monitor:
a. liver enzymes.
b. renal function studies.
c. the complete blood count.
d. serum electrolytes.
27. Most Antiepileptic drugs treat a specific form(s) of epilepsy. Which of the following is effective for almost all forms?
a. Phenytoin
b. Ethosuximide
c. Valproic acid
d. Phenobarbital
28. The only two known risk factors for AD are:
a. obesity and illicit drug use.
b. high socioeconomic status and
Caucasian race.
c. advancing age and family history.
d. alcoholism and hypertension.
29. Centrally acting anticholinergics used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease control
symptoms by:
a. blocking cholinergic receptors.
b. activating dopamine receptors.
c. preventing destruction of dopamine in
the central nervous system.
d. increasing synthesis of dopamine.
30. Activation of which of the following receptor subtypes causes contraction of skeletal muscle?
a. Alpha1
b. Muscarinic
c. Nicotinic
d. Beta2
31. The only reason that a patient would be taking an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor
would be for the treatment of:
a. glaucoma.
b. myasthenia.
c. muscular dystrophy.
d. hypertension.
32. In recovery the patient who had received a neuromuscular blocker must be monitored until:
a. they are fully conscious.
b. they can breathe spontaneously.
c. all muscle function has fully recovered.
d. vital signs are normal.
33. Which of the following nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers has the shortest duration of action?
a. pancuronium
b. rocuronium
c. vecuronium
d. mivacurium
34. Which of the following agents is termed the prototype of the amide agents?
a. Procaine
b. Cocaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Lidocaine
35. Anesthetic agents with a high minimum alveolar concentration (MAC):
a. have low anesthetic potency.
b. require less drug to achieve immobility.
c. can be used alone to achieve surgical anesthesia.
d. characterize most anesthetic agents in use today.
36. Which of the following descriptors relates to physical dependence?
a. A state in which larger doses are required to produce the same response that could formerly be elicited by a smaller dose.
b. A state in which an individual will seek and use the drug despite physical, psychological or social harm.
c. The state in which pain is undertreated and the patient appears to be drug seeking.
d. A state in which an abstinence syndrome will occur if the drug use is abruptly continued.
37. A patient with a history of migraines is asking for a medication to take in effort to prevent attacks. Which of the following drugs will this patient likely be given?
a. Propranolol
b. Sumatriptan
c. Ergotamine
d. Dihydroergotamine
38. Haloperidol is classified as a(n):
a. low-potency antipsychotic drug.
b. medium-potency antipsychotic drug.
c. high-potency antipsychotic drug.
d. atypical antipsychotic drug.
39. The nurse is caring for a patient on antipsychotics who develops acute dystonia. This will likely be treated with:
a. 5HT3 blockers.
b. anticholinergics.
c. neuroleptics.
d. tricyclics.
40. Which of the above is considered a serious side effect of the TCAs?
a. Headache
b. Dry mouth
c. Nasal stuffiness
d. Orthostatic hypotension
41. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are:
a. used first line in the treatment of depression.
b. reserved for patients who have not responded to SSRIs and TCAs.
c. used in patients who have developed serotonergic syndrome.
d. indicated for patients who have difficulty sleeping.
42. The drug that has replaced lithium as the treatment of choice for bipolar disorder is:
a. carbamazepine.
b. valproic acid.
c. olanzapine.
d. risperidone.
43. The only benzodiazepines that is commonly used to relieve muscle spasm is:
a. Diazepam.
b. Lorazepam.
c. Estazolam.
d. Clonazepam.
44. If taken alone, large doses or oral benzodiazepines:
a. cause significant toxicity.
b. antagonize effects of other CNS drugs.
c. cause profound respiratory depression.
d. are rarely lethal.
45. Which category of drugs is used for all types of anxiety disorders?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
c. Barbiturates
d. Anticonvulsants
46. An important component of patient education for the patient on buspirone is to:
a. not take the medication with grapefruit juice.
b. avoid alcohol containing products.
c. never take the medication with food.
d. beware of signs of dependence and abuse.
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